If u is orthogonal to both v and w, and u not equal to 0, argue that u is not in the span of v and w. ( Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Orthogonal projection on span $x$Prove the orthogonal complement is equal to the orthogonal complement of the Span.Linear Independence and “Not in the Span”Incomplete Gauss Jordan elimination: what have I left outConsider the following system and find the values of b for which the system has a solutionDifference between Augmented Method and Gauss Jordan elimination?General form of a matrix that is both centrosymmetric and orthogonalPivots and singular cases in Gaussian EliminationOrthogonal projection on SpanFor what values of k does this system of equations have a unique / infinite / no solutions?

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If u is orthogonal to both v and w, and u not equal to 0, argue that u is not in the span of v and w. (



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Orthogonal projection on span $x$Prove the orthogonal complement is equal to the orthogonal complement of the Span.Linear Independence and “Not in the Span”Incomplete Gauss Jordan elimination: what have I left outConsider the following system and find the values of b for which the system has a solutionDifference between Augmented Method and Gauss Jordan elimination?General form of a matrix that is both centrosymmetric and orthogonalPivots and singular cases in Gaussian EliminationOrthogonal projection on SpanFor what values of k does this system of equations have a unique / infinite / no solutions?










1












$begingroup$


QN: If u is orthogonal to both v and w, and u ≠ 0, argue that u is not in the span of v and w.



Where I am at:
enter image description here



I get stuck when it comes to solving my augmented matrix with Gauss Jordan Elimination.



I also tried formulating the following steps to solve the problem.



  1. Create instances of u, v and w that pertain to the question. My visualisation in Geogebra can be viewed here: https://ggbm.at/b6xvwhpa


  2. Set u = av + bw = u (where a and b are constants)


  3. Disprove (2)

However, I could not get past step 1.



Any pointers would be greatly appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Dimen3ional is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    QN: If u is orthogonal to both v and w, and u ≠ 0, argue that u is not in the span of v and w.



    Where I am at:
    enter image description here



    I get stuck when it comes to solving my augmented matrix with Gauss Jordan Elimination.



    I also tried formulating the following steps to solve the problem.



    1. Create instances of u, v and w that pertain to the question. My visualisation in Geogebra can be viewed here: https://ggbm.at/b6xvwhpa


    2. Set u = av + bw = u (where a and b are constants)


    3. Disprove (2)

    However, I could not get past step 1.



    Any pointers would be greatly appreciated.










    share|cite|improve this question









    New contributor




    Dimen3ional is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.







    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      QN: If u is orthogonal to both v and w, and u ≠ 0, argue that u is not in the span of v and w.



      Where I am at:
      enter image description here



      I get stuck when it comes to solving my augmented matrix with Gauss Jordan Elimination.



      I also tried formulating the following steps to solve the problem.



      1. Create instances of u, v and w that pertain to the question. My visualisation in Geogebra can be viewed here: https://ggbm.at/b6xvwhpa


      2. Set u = av + bw = u (where a and b are constants)


      3. Disprove (2)

      However, I could not get past step 1.



      Any pointers would be greatly appreciated.










      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Dimen3ional is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.







      $endgroup$




      QN: If u is orthogonal to both v and w, and u ≠ 0, argue that u is not in the span of v and w.



      Where I am at:
      enter image description here



      I get stuck when it comes to solving my augmented matrix with Gauss Jordan Elimination.



      I also tried formulating the following steps to solve the problem.



      1. Create instances of u, v and w that pertain to the question. My visualisation in Geogebra can be viewed here: https://ggbm.at/b6xvwhpa


      2. Set u = av + bw = u (where a and b are constants)


      3. Disprove (2)

      However, I could not get past step 1.



      Any pointers would be greatly appreciated.







      linear-algebra matrices






      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Dimen3ional is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Dimen3ional is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.









      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 23 mins ago









      YuiTo Cheng

      2,52341037




      2,52341037






      New contributor




      Dimen3ional is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      asked 36 mins ago









      Dimen3ionalDimen3ional

      82




      82




      New contributor




      Dimen3ional is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.





      New contributor





      Dimen3ional is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.






      Dimen3ional is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          $defmyvec#1bf#1$
          This is the same as saying




          if $myvec u$ is orthogonal to both $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, and $myvec u$ is in the span of $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, then $myvec u=myvec 0$.




          So, if $myvec u$ is in the span of $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, then $myvec u=amyvec v+bmyvec w$ for some scalars $a,b$. Assuming also $myvec u$ is orthogonal to both $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, this means $myvec ucdot myvec v=0$ and $myvec ucdotmyvec w=0$, so
          $$myvec ucdot myvec u=myvec ucdot(amyvec v+bmyvec w)=a(myvec ucdot myvec v)+b(myvec ucdot myvec w)=a0+b0=0 .$$
          Since $myvec ucdot myvec u=0$ we have $myvec u=myvec 0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I thought about this, however, the question specifically states that u can not be zero. If u can't be zero does that not prevent the above proof, or am I looking at this the wrong way?
            $endgroup$
            – Dimen3ional
            20 mins ago










          • $begingroup$
            Have you studied proof by contradiction or by contrapositive? That's what this is.
            $endgroup$
            – David
            19 mins ago



















          2












          $begingroup$

          If $u$ belongs to the span of $v$ and $w$ the $u=av+bw$ for some scalars $a$ and $b$. Since $langle u, v rangle=0$ and $langle u, w rangle=0$ we get $langle u, (av+bw) rangle=0$ so $langle u, u rangle=0$. This means $u=0$ which is a contradiction.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













            Your Answer








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            2 Answers
            2






            active

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            2












            $begingroup$

            $defmyvec#1bf#1$
            This is the same as saying




            if $myvec u$ is orthogonal to both $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, and $myvec u$ is in the span of $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, then $myvec u=myvec 0$.




            So, if $myvec u$ is in the span of $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, then $myvec u=amyvec v+bmyvec w$ for some scalars $a,b$. Assuming also $myvec u$ is orthogonal to both $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, this means $myvec ucdot myvec v=0$ and $myvec ucdotmyvec w=0$, so
            $$myvec ucdot myvec u=myvec ucdot(amyvec v+bmyvec w)=a(myvec ucdot myvec v)+b(myvec ucdot myvec w)=a0+b0=0 .$$
            Since $myvec ucdot myvec u=0$ we have $myvec u=myvec 0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              I thought about this, however, the question specifically states that u can not be zero. If u can't be zero does that not prevent the above proof, or am I looking at this the wrong way?
              $endgroup$
              – Dimen3ional
              20 mins ago










            • $begingroup$
              Have you studied proof by contradiction or by contrapositive? That's what this is.
              $endgroup$
              – David
              19 mins ago
















            2












            $begingroup$

            $defmyvec#1bf#1$
            This is the same as saying




            if $myvec u$ is orthogonal to both $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, and $myvec u$ is in the span of $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, then $myvec u=myvec 0$.




            So, if $myvec u$ is in the span of $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, then $myvec u=amyvec v+bmyvec w$ for some scalars $a,b$. Assuming also $myvec u$ is orthogonal to both $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, this means $myvec ucdot myvec v=0$ and $myvec ucdotmyvec w=0$, so
            $$myvec ucdot myvec u=myvec ucdot(amyvec v+bmyvec w)=a(myvec ucdot myvec v)+b(myvec ucdot myvec w)=a0+b0=0 .$$
            Since $myvec ucdot myvec u=0$ we have $myvec u=myvec 0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              I thought about this, however, the question specifically states that u can not be zero. If u can't be zero does that not prevent the above proof, or am I looking at this the wrong way?
              $endgroup$
              – Dimen3ional
              20 mins ago










            • $begingroup$
              Have you studied proof by contradiction or by contrapositive? That's what this is.
              $endgroup$
              – David
              19 mins ago














            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            $defmyvec#1bf#1$
            This is the same as saying




            if $myvec u$ is orthogonal to both $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, and $myvec u$ is in the span of $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, then $myvec u=myvec 0$.




            So, if $myvec u$ is in the span of $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, then $myvec u=amyvec v+bmyvec w$ for some scalars $a,b$. Assuming also $myvec u$ is orthogonal to both $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, this means $myvec ucdot myvec v=0$ and $myvec ucdotmyvec w=0$, so
            $$myvec ucdot myvec u=myvec ucdot(amyvec v+bmyvec w)=a(myvec ucdot myvec v)+b(myvec ucdot myvec w)=a0+b0=0 .$$
            Since $myvec ucdot myvec u=0$ we have $myvec u=myvec 0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            $defmyvec#1bf#1$
            This is the same as saying




            if $myvec u$ is orthogonal to both $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, and $myvec u$ is in the span of $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, then $myvec u=myvec 0$.




            So, if $myvec u$ is in the span of $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, then $myvec u=amyvec v+bmyvec w$ for some scalars $a,b$. Assuming also $myvec u$ is orthogonal to both $myvec v$ and $myvec w$, this means $myvec ucdot myvec v=0$ and $myvec ucdotmyvec w=0$, so
            $$myvec ucdot myvec u=myvec ucdot(amyvec v+bmyvec w)=a(myvec ucdot myvec v)+b(myvec ucdot myvec w)=a0+b0=0 .$$
            Since $myvec ucdot myvec u=0$ we have $myvec u=myvec 0$.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 27 mins ago









            DavidDavid

            70.1k668131




            70.1k668131











            • $begingroup$
              I thought about this, however, the question specifically states that u can not be zero. If u can't be zero does that not prevent the above proof, or am I looking at this the wrong way?
              $endgroup$
              – Dimen3ional
              20 mins ago










            • $begingroup$
              Have you studied proof by contradiction or by contrapositive? That's what this is.
              $endgroup$
              – David
              19 mins ago

















            • $begingroup$
              I thought about this, however, the question specifically states that u can not be zero. If u can't be zero does that not prevent the above proof, or am I looking at this the wrong way?
              $endgroup$
              – Dimen3ional
              20 mins ago










            • $begingroup$
              Have you studied proof by contradiction or by contrapositive? That's what this is.
              $endgroup$
              – David
              19 mins ago
















            $begingroup$
            I thought about this, however, the question specifically states that u can not be zero. If u can't be zero does that not prevent the above proof, or am I looking at this the wrong way?
            $endgroup$
            – Dimen3ional
            20 mins ago




            $begingroup$
            I thought about this, however, the question specifically states that u can not be zero. If u can't be zero does that not prevent the above proof, or am I looking at this the wrong way?
            $endgroup$
            – Dimen3ional
            20 mins ago












            $begingroup$
            Have you studied proof by contradiction or by contrapositive? That's what this is.
            $endgroup$
            – David
            19 mins ago





            $begingroup$
            Have you studied proof by contradiction or by contrapositive? That's what this is.
            $endgroup$
            – David
            19 mins ago












            2












            $begingroup$

            If $u$ belongs to the span of $v$ and $w$ the $u=av+bw$ for some scalars $a$ and $b$. Since $langle u, v rangle=0$ and $langle u, w rangle=0$ we get $langle u, (av+bw) rangle=0$ so $langle u, u rangle=0$. This means $u=0$ which is a contradiction.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              2












              $begingroup$

              If $u$ belongs to the span of $v$ and $w$ the $u=av+bw$ for some scalars $a$ and $b$. Since $langle u, v rangle=0$ and $langle u, w rangle=0$ we get $langle u, (av+bw) rangle=0$ so $langle u, u rangle=0$. This means $u=0$ which is a contradiction.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                2












                2








                2





                $begingroup$

                If $u$ belongs to the span of $v$ and $w$ the $u=av+bw$ for some scalars $a$ and $b$. Since $langle u, v rangle=0$ and $langle u, w rangle=0$ we get $langle u, (av+bw) rangle=0$ so $langle u, u rangle=0$. This means $u=0$ which is a contradiction.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                If $u$ belongs to the span of $v$ and $w$ the $u=av+bw$ for some scalars $a$ and $b$. Since $langle u, v rangle=0$ and $langle u, w rangle=0$ we get $langle u, (av+bw) rangle=0$ so $langle u, u rangle=0$. This means $u=0$ which is a contradiction.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered 26 mins ago









                Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

                75.6k53270




                75.6k53270




















                    Dimen3ional is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









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